Theorem: Prove that no order can be defined in the complex field that turns it into an ordered field.
Proof: Suppose complex field is an ordered field. So, either $i$ or $-i$ must be positive. Suppose $i>0$. Hence $i^2=-1>0$, but then $(-1)^2=1>0$. But this is contradiction as both $x$ and $-x$ cannot be true in an ordered field, where $x$ belongs to that ordered field.
My question: Why was $-1>0$ not itself a contradiction an end of the proof?
our argument would work if you already know there is only one ordered field over the real numbers! Many times textbooks forgo "understanding" proofs for more straightforward proofs. This is because they wish to help you in proof writing (something definitely teachable) over understanding (which is not as teachable or measurable).
*there being one field over the reals definitionally but not as obviously one ordering.