I have a question about subanalytic sets. Why is $\{(1/(n+1),n)\mid n\in\mathbb{N}\}$ a subanalytic set but its projection onto $\mathbf{R}\times \{0\}$ is not?
2026-03-25 12:29:35.1774441775
Why is $\{(1/(n+1),n)\mid n\in\mathbb{N}\}$ a subanalytic set?
116 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in ANALYTICITY
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