I am trying to figure out why any von Neumann is SOT closed, which is stated in Conway. Do we need to use the Double Commutant Theorem on this implication aswell?
Is there a simpler explanation?
I am trying to figure out why any von Neumann is SOT closed, which is stated in Conway. Do we need to use the Double Commutant Theorem on this implication aswell?
Is there a simpler explanation?
Copyright © 2021 JogjaFile Inc.
A von Neumann algebra is often defined as a follows:
The bicommutant theorem says that
The implication from $2$ to $3$ is trivial. Showing $1$ to $2$ is an easy exercise.
Could you specify the definition you use and which step is causing troubles?