In the end of an exercise I reach the point that I state that the answer is $\cos^{-1} \left( \sin 2\theta \right)$. The book gives, as an answer, $\displaystyle \frac{\pi}{2} - 2\theta$.
By plotting in Wolfram I coud see that, for in interval considered ($0 < \theta < \frac{\pi}{4}$) they are equivalent. But whay is that? How can I show that?
$$\displaystyle \cos^{-1} \left( \sin 2\theta \right) = \frac{\pi}{2} - 2\theta$$
Take cosine of both sides to get the equivalent statement for $0 < \theta < \frac{\pi}{4}$
$$ \sin 2\theta = \cos(\frac{\pi}{2} - 2\theta) $$
Which is true for every $\theta$