I'm a high school senior and this question has been on my mind since 8th grade, since I've learned Euler's formula but I've thought about it a lot more recently. According to Wolfram Alpha: (e^i)^(2iπ)=e^(-2π)
How is this possible??????
In other words, if
$$ e^{iπ} = -1 $$
$$ e^{2iπ} = 1 $$
$$ (e^{2iπ})^i = 1^i $$
$$ e^{-2π} = 1 $$
Where is the error in this reasoning?