I'm studying Tu's proof (p. 123) of theorem 11.13, but I just have a question about one detail.
He has that $f\colon N\to M$ is an embedding of a manifold of dimension $n$ in a manifold of dimension $m$, and he shows that given $p\in N$, there are local coordinates $(U, x^1, \dots, x^n)$ near $p$ and $(V, y^1, \dots, y^m)$ near $f(p)$ such that $f\colon U\to V$ has the form $$ (x^1, \dots, x^n) \mapsto (x^1, \dots, x^n, 0, \dots, 0). $$ He then says
Thus, $f(U)$ is defined in $V$ by the vanishing of the coordinates $y^{n+1}, \dots, y^m$.
I understand this statement to mean that $$ f(U) \cap V = \{ q\in V \mid y^{n+1}(q) = \dots = y^m(q) = 0\}. $$ However, I don't understand why this should be the case. Couldn't there be other points of $V$ at which the coordinates $y^{n+1}, \dots, y^m$ vanish?
You know that given $f:N\to M$, there is a chart $(x,U)$ of $p$ and $(y,V)$ of $f(p)$ such that $y\circ f\circ x^{-1}:\Bbb R^n\to \Bbb R^m$ has the form $(a^1,\ldots,a^n)\to (a^1,\ldots,a^n,0,\ldots,0)$.
Now pick $q$ in $V\subseteq M$; and suppose that $y(q)$ has $0$ "last" coordinates, that is $y(q) = (a^1,\ldots,a^n,0,\ldots,0)$. By the above, $yfx^{-1}(a^1,\ldots,a^n) = y(q)$, so $q=fx^{-1}(a^1,\ldots,a^n)\in f(U)$.
Conversely if we pick $q\in f(U)\cap V$ the above gives $q$ has zero last $y$-coordinates.