According to the chain rule $(f(g(x))' = f'(g(x))g'(x)$.
I would have thought the latter would be correct, since I would identify $g(x)$ with $g(h(x))$ in my question title.
According to the chain rule $(f(g(x))' = f'(g(x))g'(x)$.
I would have thought the latter would be correct, since I would identify $g(x)$ with $g(h(x))$ in my question title.
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If we define a composite function as $(f\circ g \circ h)(x)$ we have two ways of interpreting it:
These are identical, and if we apply the chain rule we get:
1'. $(f\circ g)'h(x)\cdot h'(x)$
2'. $f'(g\circ h)(x)\cdot (g \circ h)'(x)$
The next step brings the two together:
$f'(g(h(x)))\cdot g'(h(x))\cdot h'(x)$