Why is $\frac{\phi(x)-\phi(-x)}{x}$ for smooth $\phi$ bounded at $x=0$? If i set $\phi(x) = \sqrt{|x|}$, it definitely not bounded. I saw this on page 293 of
http://www.math.ucdavis.edu/~hunter/book/pdfbook.html
where in example it 11.7 it is claimed the integrand (which is an expression like mine) is bounded?
Using fundamental theorem of calculus: $$\phi(x)-\phi(-x)=\int_{-x}^x\phi'(t)dt=x\phi'(x)+x\phi'(-x)-\int_{-x}^xt\phi''t)dt,$$ hence for $0<|x|\leq 1$, we have $$\left|\frac{\phi(x)-\phi(-x)}x\right|\leq 2\sup_{|s|\leq 1}|\phi'(s)|+2\sup_{|s|\leq 1}|\phi''(s)|,$$ which shows boundedness, since both supremum are finite ($\phi'$ and $\phi''$ are continuous on $[-1,1]$).