Why is it that the product $(a-x)(b-x) \cdots(y-x)(z-x)$ simplifies to $0$?

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I came across this trick question, and I don't understand the solution to the puzzle. We are asked to simplify the product $$(a-x)(b-x) \cdots(y-x)(z-x),\tag{$*$}$$ and the answer is apparently supposed to be $0$.

I have no idea how this can be, and how one can simplify the above expression. Can someone explain to me why the product $(*)$ simplifies to $0$?