The traditional "haversine" formula for great-circle distance is traditionally expressed as
$$ 2R \arcsin\left(\sqrt{ \sin\left(\frac{\Delta\varphi}{2}\right)^2 + \cos\left(\varphi_1\right) \cos\left(\varphi_2\right) \sin\left(\frac{\Delta\lambda}{2}\right)^2 }\right) $$
See e.g. here.
Given the identity:
$$ \mathrm{haversin}\left( \theta \right) = \frac{1 - \cos\left( \theta \right)}{2} = \sin\left( \frac{\theta}{2} \right) ^2 $$
Why do we typically express the formula in terms of sine-squared, and not in terms of cosine? Does it look prettier? Is there an historical reason for doing it? Is it more numerically stable?
Closely related to this question is MSE question 2874940 about cosine similarity. You can read my answer to that question there. Briefly, when an angle $\theta$ is small, then $\cos(\theta)$ is close to $1$ causing the difference $1−\cos(\theta)$ to lose significance (Catastrophic cancellation) while $\sin^2$ does not. The Wikipedia article Haversine formula explains this particular case.