I am reading a paper about lower bounds for bandit problems (https://arxiv.org/abs/1302.1611). In Theorem 5, they prove a lower bound with an example problem with two arms. In the proof, I see the following step and I wonder where it comes from.
$\sum_{t=1}^n \exp \{ -t \Delta^2\} \geq \frac{1}{\Delta^2}$
I've tried to derive it from
- a Taylor expansion,
- Jensen's inequality,
- summing to infinity,
but I don't see it.
Thanks!
It is the other way aroud: \begin{align*} \sum\limits_{t = 1}^n {\exp ( - t\Delta ^2 )} & \le \sum\limits_{t = 1}^n {\int_{t - 1}^t {\exp ( - s\Delta ^2 )ds} } \\ & = \int_0^n {\exp ( - s\Delta ^2 )ds} \le \int_0^{ + \infty } {\exp ( - s\Delta ^2 )ds} = \frac{1}{{\Delta ^2 }}. \end{align*}