Why is the expression for $\sin(\alpha)$ equal to $\frac{\delta V}{\delta x} + O(\frac{\delta V}{\delta x} )^3$

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$\sin(\alpha) = \frac{\frac{\delta V}{\delta x}}{\sqrt{1 + (\frac{\delta V}{\delta x}})^2}$, $\frac{\delta V}{\delta x}\ll 1$.

$\sin(\alpha)$ can be approximated by:

$\sin(\alpha) \approx \frac{\delta V}{\delta x} + O(\frac{\delta V}{\delta x})^3$.

In this case, why is the additional terms in the order of $O(\frac{\delta V}{\delta x})^3$? i.e. why is the exponent 3 in this case?

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since $sin^{'}(\alpha)=cos(\alpha)\alpha^{'}$, $\alpha^{'}$ can be expressed as $\frac{\delta V}{\delta x}$, and $cos(\alpha)=1/sec(\alpha)=1/\sqrt{1+tan^2(\alpha)}$.

since $sinx=x-\frac{x^3}{3!}+\frac{x^5}{5!}-......$, and $(\frac{\delta V}{\delta x})^{4}$'s order is much lower than $(\frac{\delta V}{\delta x})^{3}$. so we can tarnsform $1/\sqrt{1+(\frac{\delta V}{\delta x}})^2$ to $\sqrt{1-(\frac{\delta V}{\delta x})^2}$.

thus the term in your question can be rewrite to $\frac{\delta V}{\delta x}\cdot({\frac{\delta V}{\delta x}})^2$, since $(1-x)^{a}=1+ax+\frac{a(a-1)}{2!}x^2+......$. now your term $O(\frac{\delta V}{\delta x})^3$ holds as a bound $M$ of ratio $[f(x)/(\frac{\delta V}{\delta x})^3]$.