I am reading this book which derives the formula for logistic regression and it states that if Y_i is an estimated probability than ln(Y_i/(1-Y_i)) = a+bX1 +cX2... but I don't understand why these expressions can be equated?
2026-03-26 11:17:56.1774523876
Why is the logit of estimated value of a dependent variable equated to a linear combination of the independent variables?
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