I don't understand why do we get rid of the minus sign when we want to compute the cost function on N examples in logistic regression. I know that if we minimize something negative we can go far beyond hell, but that's all what I guess. I know it seems seimple but I can't wrap my head on it.
2026-02-22 21:52:27.1771797147
Why do we get rid of the minus sign when minimizing the cost function of logistic regression?
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You are trying to maximize likelihood. That is equivalent to minimizing the negative of likelihood.