Is mode a measure of central tendency just because it's the most frequent? Is it enough to say that it's in the center? I think it's lame, and there might be some other reason why we call it a measure of central tendency. But, I don't know the reason.
2026-03-07 23:36:29.1772926589
Why is the mode a measure of central tendency?
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Imagine, you made a questionaire “What is your favourite colour?” and got the following answers:
What is a central tendency here? Of course, you might transform the colours to RGB and calculate the mean. Or you can arrange the colours from dark to light and find the median. Or you can say “red” is the colour that people choose the most.
If you want to describe a distribution in general the first thing you may ask “where the values approximately are?” and then “how concentrated they are?”. Different ways to answer the first question are called the central tendency, answers to the second question are called variability.
Many natural distributions are unimodal and if they have a mean/median, it's not far from the mode. Thus, the mode is a good measure of central tendency. But you can think of it as lame, of course, no one can stop you from that.