I am wondering why the notation $\frac{df}{dx}$ isn't used for partial derivatives, because it seems to me like someone could tell that it was a partial derivative if they knew that $f$ was a function of several variables, so no need to use a different notation.
2026-04-04 17:33:21.1775324001
Why is the notation $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}$ used?
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As this states,
Caritat wanted to differentiate (if you'll pardon the pun) between the total differential and the partial derivative, which have two completely different meanings (This is elaborated upon in an answer by Lost). Legendre and Jacobi later used the same $\partial$ for partial derivatives, and the notation stuck.