Why is the shape operator $A: \mathbb R^2 \to \mathbb R^2 $self adjoint regarding the first fundamental form? I see it is written as a fact everywhere but cannot find a proof for it.
2026-04-01 23:07:14.1775084834
Why is the shape operator self adjoint regarding the first fundamental form?
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I already found out myself that it is equivalent to the symmetry of the 2nd fundamental form.