I read the definition of tensor products of modules which can also be found here. I was wondering why exactly it is unique up to isomorphism.
Let's say you have found a tensor product of two modules $M\otimes_RN$ and a balanced product $\otimes:M\times N \to M\otimes_RN$. Why can't you expand $M\otimes_RN$ to a bigger abelian group $G$ with the balanced product $\otimes:M\times N \to M\otimes_RN\hookrightarrow G$ (using the natural inclusion of $M\otimes_RN$ into $G$)? Since apparently the balanced product doesn't need to be surjective. Everything in the definition of the tensor product seems to only rely on $\text{Im}(\otimes)$ and not on $M\otimes_RN$.
The key part of the definition is that for any balanced product $f\colon M\times N\to H$ there is unique group homomorphism $\bar f\colon M\otimes N\to H$ such that $\bar f \circ \otimes = f$.
So, let's assume that $G$ has that universal property. Denote $i\colon M\otimes N\hookrightarrow G$ and $\otimes' = i\circ \otimes$. Now, $\otimes\colon M\times N\to M\otimes N$ is a balanced product so by the universal property there is unique group homomorphism $j\colon G\to M\otimes N$ such that $j\circ \otimes' = \otimes$.
Note that $\otimes'\colon M\times N\to G$ is a balanced product so there exists unique group homomorphism $f\colon G\to G$ such that $f\circ \otimes' = \otimes'$ by the universal property. However, we have $(i\circ j)\circ \otimes' = i\circ\otimes =\otimes'$ and $\mathrm{id}_G\circ \otimes' =\otimes'$, so by the uniqueness, $i\circ j = \mathrm{id}_G$.
Similarly, $\otimes\colon M\times N\to M\otimes N$ is a balanced product, so like above, we have $(j\circ i)\circ \otimes = j\circ \otimes' = \otimes$ and $\mathrm{id}_{M\otimes N} \circ \otimes = \otimes$, and by uniqueness we have $j\circ i = \mathrm{id}_{M\otimes N}$.
Therefore, $G\cong M\otimes N$.