Why is the upper bound of Euler's number $=3$?
I found that the upper bound of Euler's number can be evaluated as $1 +$ the lower bound (in other word the integer part). I do not understand why is it though.
2026-03-31 23:38:52.1775000332
Why is the upper bound of Euler's number $=3$?
248 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in UPPER-LOWER-BOUNDS
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