So through my years of education I have heard a lot about the famous $\mathrm{P}=\mathrm{NP}$ problem. I have seen that a significant number of mathematicians believe that this result is false (and that $\mathrm{P} \neq \mathrm{NP}$). Of course I respect their opinion and understand they don't express anything more than their beliefs. However, the fact that the majority is so overwhelming has always stricken me.
From what I have seen from websites, talks, etc., the main argument in favor of $\mathrm{P} \neq \mathrm{NP}$ is that given our actual knowledge of mathematics, if $\mathrm{P}$ was indeed equal to $\mathrm{NP}$, we would already have a proof. In my humble opinion, this is extremely weak since breakthroughs in the world of algorithms seem to happen regularly, and that century-old problem only get solutions today thanks to new ways of seeing things (Fermat and Poincaré's conjectures are nice examples of this).
I have seen people think that $\mathrm{P} = \mathrm{NP} \cap \mathrm{co}\text{-}\mathrm{NP}$ based on the fact that lots of problems that are in both $\mathrm{NP}$ and $\mathrm{co}\text{-}\mathrm{NP}$ are found to be in $\mathrm{P}$. Apparently the fact that $\mathrm{PRIMES}$ is in $\mathrm{P}$ wasn't that much of a surprise (even if the result is stunning) because $\mathrm{PRIMES}$ was known to be in $\mathrm{NP} \cap \mathrm{co}\text{-}\mathrm{NP}$. Same goes with linear programming.
But on the other hand, it has been shown that if $\mathrm{P} \neq \mathrm{NP}$ there are problems that belong to $\mathrm{NP}$ but are neither $\mathrm{P}$ nor $\mathrm{NP}$-complete, and we know very few problems (AFAIK) that are in this case. Furthermore, some problems in there might fall one day into one $\mathrm{P}$ (maybe Discrete Logarithm after the discovery of a $O(n^{log (n)})$ algorithm?).
So I'm surely missing arguments or extrapolating too much from the little I know. Hence the question : Why is there apparently a consensus on the $\mathrm{P} = \mathrm{NP}$ question?
I don't ask for everyone to state their opinion, I simply wonder about a thought process that seems to be quasi universal in the mind of numerous mathematicians. I honestly don't think this question is opinion-based.
The post Reasons to believe from Scott Aaronson's blog states...
Together with the post from the same blog The Scientific Case for P≠NP (already mentioned in a comment by user @Semiclassical), these pretty much cover the subject.