Are they considered equal in some sense?
For instance, I always write "...for vector $\mathbf{x} \in {\mathbb{R}}^n$ we have ...". I have a small problem with this (not a big one). The problem comes from the fact that the "cartesian power" of a set is defined as: ${\mathbb{R}}^n = \underbrace{ \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R} \times \cdots \times \mathbb{R} }_{n}= \{ (x_1,\ldots,x_n) \mid x_i \in \mathbb{R} \ \text{for all} \ 1 \le i \le n \}$. In other words, we are implying that the vector $\mathbf{x}$ is a tuple because we, with the relation "is an element of" ($\in$), are defining the $n$-dimensional vector to be a member of a set ${\mathbb{R}}^n$ in where members are $n$-tuples.
Is there implied a tiny mathematical abuse of notation here? Or have I completely lost it? :)
In general, a vector is not a tuple. But in the specific case of $\mathbb{R}^n$, where $n$ is a natural number, the elements of this space are tuples, because that is how the space is defined.
Nevertheless, although these vectors happen to be tuples, it is often more elegant to pretend that they are atomic objects, and work in a "coordinate free" way. This emphasizes the geometry of the vector space rather than its algebraic aspects.
On the other hand, given a finite dimensional vector space $V$ over a field $F$, say of dimension $k$, the original space is isomorphic to the vector space $F^k$ of $k$-tuples of elements of $F$. So in a sense these "tuple spaces" capture all finite dimensional vector spaces up to isomorphism.