The Aleph function $f$ is defined from ordinals to cardinals as $f(x)$=the $x$-th infinite cardinal. However, I think a different function $g$ should be used instead. I define $g(x)$= the $x$-th cardinal. So, for example, for any natural number, $g(n)=n$, and $g(\omega)=\omega$, and $g(\omega+1)=\aleph_1$. So, historically, why was the aleph function used more often than this function? This function seems more natural. This is not really a mathematical question, more like a soft question or philosophical question.
2026-04-15 13:02:01.1776258121
Why is this function from ordinals to cardinals not used more often?
48 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in SOFT-QUESTION
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