For the eigenvector how are they getting \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix} when you have \begin{bmatrix} 0 & -1 & -1 \\ 0 & -1 & -3 \\ 0 & 0 & -2 \end{bmatrix} multiplied by\begin{bmatrix} v_1 \\ v_2 \\ v_3 \end{bmatrix} which turns to three equations...:
$(0) * v_1 -v_2 -v_3 = 0$
$(0) * v_1 - v_2 -3v_3 = 0$
$(0) * v_1 + (0) * v_2 -2v_3 = 0$
so $v_1$ turns to $0$ when you multiply by $0$ so how are they getting $1$ in the $v_1$ position.. What am i missing here?
We have
$$\begin{bmatrix} 0 & -1 & -1 \\ 0 & -1 & -3 \\ 0 & 0 & -2 \end{bmatrix} \cdot \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix} = 0\cdot \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix}$$
So the column vector is indeed an eigenvector of the matrix, with eigenvalue zero.
I'm not sure what you mean by "the smallest eigenvector" since there are others, with eigenvalues $-1$ and $-2$.
As for your analysis, @Hayden is correct in saying that you can choose $v_1$ arbitrarily. If you continue solving those equations you will get $v_2=0$ and $v_3=0$. Therefore, all the eigenvectors with eigenvalue zero are
$$\begin{bmatrix} v_1 \\ 0 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix}$$
where $v_1\ne 0$. If you set $v_1=0$ the equalities hold, but by definition an eigenvector must be non-zero.