Why isn't this statement about direct sums of injective modules contradicting the proposition?

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I am trying to read Tsit-Yuen Lam's "Lectures on Modules and Rings" in order to understand why any abelian group can be injected in an injective abelian group, but I got confused by the following proposition on page 61:

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After proving this result, he states that a direct sum of injective modules doesn't have to result in an injective module, and that it is only guaranteed in a finite direct sum. Why doesn't this contradict the proposition?