Here is the part of Tom Leinster's book I am reading:
Let $\theta: G \to H$ be a homomorphism of groups. As in Example 0.8, the homomorphism $\theta$ gives rise to a fork
But I do not understand why showing that the given shape an equalizer amounts to showing that $\bar{f}$ is a homomorphism and how to show this actually. Could someone explain this to me please?
Here is the definition of an equalizer:
Here is Example 0.8 (until I typeset it):





The key obeservation is that the category $\bf Grp$ has a zero object (object that is both initial and terminal), $\{e\}$, the trivial group. The consequence is that for any two groups $G$ and $H$ there is a unique homomorphism $\varepsilon\colon G\to H$ given as a composition $G\to \{e\} \to H$. Of course, this is just the homomorphism $\varepsilon(g) = e_H$, for all $g\in G$.
So, let $f\colon G\to H$ be a homomorphism. Then, $$g\in\ker f\iff f(g) = e_H\iff f(g) = \varepsilon(g)\iff g\in \operatorname{eq}(f,\varepsilon).$$
The same is true for any category with zero object.
Here we are using set theoretical definitions of kernel and equalizer that works for $\bf Grp$. To make this formal in sense of category theory, you have to show that the sets $$\ker f = \{ g\in G\mid f(g) = e_h\}$$ $$\operatorname{eq}(f_1,f_2) = \{ g\in G\mid f_1(g) = f_2(g) \}$$
equipped with inclusion maps to the group $G$ indeed satisfy the universal property of kernel and equalizer. I can write it down, but I'm sure it's written somewhere in Leinster.
Now, what I've shown is that sets $\ker f$ and $\operatorname{eq}(f,\varepsilon)$ are equal, so the identity map $$\operatorname{id}\colon \ker f\to \operatorname{eq}(f,\varepsilon)$$ is isomorphism in the category of groups that commutes with inclusions, so they both satisfy the same universal properties by abstract nonsense.