Let $L^2[0,1]$ be the space of continuous square integrable functions, where we use the Riemann Integral, no Lebesgue allowed. Let $(f_n)_n$ be a sequence of continuous functions on $[0,1]$ and $f$ a continuous functions on $[0,1]$. Assume that $||f_n-f||_2 \rightarrow 0$. Does it follow that $f_n(x) \rightarrow f(x)$ for some $x \in [0,1]$? Give a proof or counterexample.
So far, I think that it does follow that $f_n(x) \rightarrow f(x)$ for some $x \in [0,1]$. Here is why. Suppose for a contradiction that no such point $x$ exists. Then we have that $|f_n(x)-f(x)|> \epsilon$ for all $x \in [0,1]$ and all $n \in \mathbb{N}$. Then $g_n(x)^2=|f_n(x)-f(x)|^2 \geq \epsilon^2$. It follows that $\int^{1}_{0}g_n(x)^2dx \geq \epsilon^2$, so $\sqrt{\int^{1}_{0}g_n(x)^2dx} \geq \epsilon$. And we have a contradiction.
Is this reasoning correct?
Quick negative response
Sequence of step functions with constant height and contracting width
Take a countable family of sliding bumps $$\{f_{n,k} := \chi_{\Large[(k-1)/2^n,k/2^n]} \mid n \in \Bbb{N}, k\in\{1,\dots,2^n\}\}$$ as a counterexample. $$\int_0^1 f_{n,k}(x)dx = \frac{1}{2^n} \xrightarrow[n\to\infty]{} 0 \implies f_{n,k} \xrightarrow[n\to\infty]{L^2} 0$$ However, $f_{n,k}(x) \not\to 0$ everywhere since for each bump of width $2^{-n}$, $k \in \{1,\dots,2^n\}$ iterates through the whole universe $[0,1]$. As a result, $f_{n,k}(x)$ "oscillates" between $0$ and $1$
almosteverywhere.Make our bumps continuous (edited)
As OP points out, the above family of functions are discontinuous, but the essential idea is already there: find a sequence of geometric figures with converging "areas". In the case, a simplest shape that makes $\{f_{n,k}\}_{n,k}$ continuous would be $\triangle$. \begin{array}{rcl} & \Huge\triangle & W(x) = (1-|x|)^+ \\ -1 & 0 & 1 \end{array} Shrink $W(x)$ down horizontally by a factor of $2^{-(n+1)}$, then translate the peak by $(2k-1)/2^{n+1}$ units to the right. $$f_{n,k}(x) = W\left(2^{n+1}\left(x - \frac{2k-1}{2^{n+1}}\right)\right) = W(2^{n+1}x - (2k-1))$$ The integral $\int_0^1 f_{n,k}(x) dx$ is just the area of the triangle. Therefore, $$\int_0^1 f_{n,k}(x) dx = \frac12^{n+1}\int_{-1}^1W(x)dx = \frac12^{n+1} \xrightarrow[n\to\infty]{} 0 \implies f_{n,k} \xrightarrow[n\to\infty]{L^2} 0,$$ but $\{f_{n,k}\}_{n,k}$ oscillates almost everywhere (on each non-trough points $[0,1]\setminus\{k/2^n \mid k \in \Bbb{Z}, n \in \Bbb{N}\}$).
Response to question in the comments
The goal "$\exists x \in [0,1]: f_n(x) \to f(x)$" in the attempted proof by contradiction is correctly set up, but the hypothesis "$\lnot(\exists x \in [0,1]: f_n(x) \to f(x))$" is incorrectly stated. Things will be clear if we expand everything in $\forall,\exists$ quantifiers.
\begin{align} \exists x \in [0,1]: f_n(x) \to f(x) \tag{Goal} \\ \exists x \in [0,1], \forall \epsilon > 0, \exists N \in \Bbb{N}: \forall n \ge N, |f_n(x) - f(x)| < \epsilon \tag{Clearer goal} \\ \forall x \in [0,1], \exists \epsilon > 0: \forall N \in \Bbb{N}, \exists n \ge N: |f_n(x) - f(x)| \ge \epsilon \tag{Negated goal} \\ \exists \epsilon > 0: \forall x \in [0,1], \forall n \in \Bbb{N}, |f_n(x) - f(x)| \ge \epsilon \tag{OP's hypothesis} \end{align}
There're two mistakes in OP's goal:
This twist in quantifiers only justifies the choice of a subsequence $(f_{n_k})_{k \in \Bbb{N}}$ from $(f_n)_{n \in \Bbb{N}}$ so that $\forall k \in \Bbb{N}, |f_{n_k}(x)-f(x)| \ge \epsilon$.
To avoid such mistakes