In question, to me wrote, that $\lim\limits_{a\to 0} \frac{\ln(1+a)}{a}=1$, but why?
$\lim\limits_{a\to 0} \frac{\ln(1+a)}{a}=\lim\limits_{a\to 0} \frac{\ln(1+0)}{0}=|\frac{0}{0}|$ or am I wrong?
In question, to me wrote, that $\lim\limits_{a\to 0} \frac{\ln(1+a)}{a}=1$, but why?
$\lim\limits_{a\to 0} \frac{\ln(1+a)}{a}=\lim\limits_{a\to 0} \frac{\ln(1+0)}{0}=|\frac{0}{0}|$ or am I wrong?
Because $\ln$ is a continuous function.
Thus, $\lim\limits_{a\rightarrow0}\frac{\ln(1+a)}{a}=\ln\lim\limits_{a\rightarrow0}(1+a)^{\frac{1}{a}}=\ln{e}=1$