We have to find $\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\int_0^1 e^{x^n}$ dx and also justify the existence.
Answer is 1. Writing it rigorously (to justify existence) is a little problem for me. I have tried through uniform convergence and attached.
My problem is that the proof which I have written may not be right as the N is dependent on 'b' which should not be the case in uniform convergence. Kindly help suggesting a better proof.

To show $\lim\limits_{n\rightarrow\infty}{\int\limits_{0}^{1}{e^{x^n}\,dx}} = 1$, it suffices to show that $\lim\limits_{n\rightarrow\infty}{\int\limits_{0}^{1}{(e^{x^n}-1)\,dx}} = 0$. Clearly, we have $\int\limits_{0}^{1}{(e^{x^n}-1)\,dx}\ge 0$. On the other hand, for any $0\le y\le 1$, we have $$e^y-1 = \int\limits_{0}^{y}{e^t\,dt}\le \int\limits_{0}^{y}{e\,dt} = ey$$ since, for $0\le t\le y\le 1$, we have $e^t\le e$. It follows that $e^{x^n}-1\le ex^n$ for all $0\le x\le 1$ for any $n$, and so $$ \int\limits_{0}^{1}{(e^{x^n}-1)\,dx} \le \int\limits_{0}^{1}{ex^n\,dx} = \frac{e}{n+1}.$$ It follows that $$ 0\le \int\limits_{0}^{1}{(e^{x^n}-1)\,dx} \le \frac{e}{n+1} $$ and so by the Squeeze theorem we have $\lim\limits_{n\rightarrow\infty}{\int\limits_{0}^{1}{(e^{x^n}-1)\,dx}} = 0$, as desired.