I am curious why
$$\lim_{n \to \infty} \left(1-\frac{1}{n}\right)^n = e^{-1}.$$
I can see why $$\lim_{n \to \infty} \left(1+\frac{m}{n}\right)^n = e^m$$ for some $m > 0$ by substituting $k = n/m$. But why does the result (Im guessing) also hold for the case $m <0$?
$$f(x)=\left(1-\frac{1}{x} \right)^x$$ Change of variable : $$x=\frac{1}{\epsilon}\quad\to\quad f(x)=g(\epsilon)=\exp\left(\frac{\ln(1-\epsilon)}{\epsilon} \right)$$ $\frac{\ln(1-\epsilon)}{\epsilon}=\frac{1}{\epsilon}\left(-\epsilon -\frac{\epsilon^2}{2}-\frac{\epsilon^3}{3}-...\right)=-1-\frac{\epsilon}{2}-\frac{\epsilon^2}{3}-...$
$x\to\infty \qquad \epsilon \to 0 \qquad \frac{\ln(1-\epsilon)}{\epsilon} \to -1$ $$f(x\to\infty)=g(\epsilon\to 0)\to \exp(-1)$$