This might be a simple question, but I am quite confused.
Q) If an unbiased estimator for a population is a sample mean then why if I predict sample mean as the estimator in a regression problem I get high bias?
This might be a simple question, but I am quite confused.
Q) If an unbiased estimator for a population is a sample mean then why if I predict sample mean as the estimator in a regression problem I get high bias?
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