My algebra textbook says to multiply the numerator and denominator by the conjugate of the denominator to eliminate $i$. For $$\frac{5i-4}{3i}$$
The conjugate of the denominator is $-3i$ and after doing all the calculations the final results is $$\frac{5}{3}+\frac{4}{3}i$$
If the example had a complex number in the denominator containing both the real portion and imaginary portion, then of course multiply by the conjugate.
But for this particular case where the real portion of the complex number in the denominator is $0$, why would it be considered "incorrect" or "improper" to multiply the numerator and denominator by $i$, and more "proper/correct" to always use the conjugate instead?
Multiplying by the numerator and denominaotor by $i$ doesn't change the results in this case.
When you are told to multiply the numerator and denominator by the complex conjugate of the denominator, it is because you are being given a method that works in all cases.
If $c+di$ is the denominator and $c,d$ are real, then multiplying the numerator and denominator by $-c+di$ will also work. And in $\dfrac{3+7i}{2+6i},$ multiplying the numerator and denominator by $1-3i$ also works.
Multiplying both the numeraotor and the denominator by the conjugate of the denominator is sufficient for the problem, but not necessary in all cases.
(I've seen instances where a student saw something like $\dfrac{6+8i} 2$ and multiplied by the numerator and the denominator by the complex conjugate of $2.$ That is silly.)