$$\sin(\pi x)=\pi x \prod_{n \ge 1}\left(1-\frac{x^2}{n^2}\right)$$
$$\pi = \frac{\sin(\pi x)}{x\prod_{n \ge 1}\left(1-\frac{x^2}{n^2}\right)}$$ Let $x=\frac{1}{2}$ $$\pi = \frac{2}{\prod_{n \ge 1}\left(1-\frac{1}{4 n^2}\right)}$$
The question is Why no one uses this formula to calculate $\pi$? Maybe I am wrong but I have never seen anyone uses this. The answer must be that this formula converge very slowly to $\pi$ and not efficient at all. But how slowly it converge to $\pi$? How much terms it need to reach the correct first 10, 100, 1000 decimals ?
Let $$\tilde\pi_{(m)} = \frac{2}{\prod_{n= 1}^m\left(1-\frac{1}{4 n^2}\right)}=\pi \,\frac{ \Gamma (m+1)^2}{\Gamma \left(m+\frac{1}{2}\right) \Gamma \left(m+\frac{3}{2}\right)}$$
$$\frac{\tilde\pi_{(m+1)}-\tilde\pi_{(m)}} {\tilde\pi_{(m)}}=\frac{1}{(2 m+1) (2 m+3)}\sim \frac 1{4m^2}$$
So, if you want that between two successive terms the relative difference be $10^{-k}$, you need $$m \sim \frac 12 \sqrt{10^k}$$