If ${\left\{ f_k \right\}_{k = 1}^\infty }$ be a frame for Hilbert space ${\cal H}$, then
$$\overline {\operatorname{span}} \left\{ {{f_k}} \right\}_{k = 1}^\infty =\cal H.$$
Why?
If ${\left\{ f_k \right\}_{k = 1}^\infty }$ be a frame for Hilbert space ${\cal H}$, then
$$\overline {\operatorname{span}} \left\{ {{f_k}} \right\}_{k = 1}^\infty =\cal H.$$
Why?
Let $\mathcal{V} := \{f_k\}_{k = 1}^{\infty}$ be a frame for a Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}$. Then there exists, in particular, an $A>0$ such that, for all $ f \in \mathcal{H}$, $$ A \| f \|^2 \leq \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} |\langle f, f_k \rangle |^2. $$
Let $f \in \mathcal{H}$ be such that $ f \perp f_k$ for all $k$, i.e., let $f \in \mathcal{V}^{\perp}$. Then $\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} |\langle f, f_k \rangle |^2 = 0$, and hence $ f = 0$. Thus $ \mathcal{V}^{\perp} = \{0 \}$, which implies that $ \mathcal{V} $ is total in $\mathcal{H}$.