From here and here you can see that in S4 modal logic we should have Kripke models (S,R,V) which have a relationship R on their set of states S so that R is reflexive and transitive on S! I know that the set of axioms we obliged on our logic forces us to have our models this way but actually, I don't know how and why!
Why S4 logic should have kripke models with reflexive and transitive relations?
322 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtThere are 2 best solutions below
On
HallaSurvivor's answer is absolutely right. Let me add a bit more, however, about the general context surrounding it.
The relevant connection between modal axiom systems and Kripke frame properties is very particular:
Definition:
A Kripke frame $(W,R)$ validates a modal sentence $\sigma$ iff for every valuation $\nu$ the sentence $\sigma$ is true at every world according to $(W,R,\nu)$.
A class $\mathfrak{F}$ of Kripke frames validates a modal sentence $\sigma$ iff every frame in $\mathfrak{F}$ validates $\sigma$.
The precise theorem connecting $S4$ and the class of transitive and reflexive frames, then, is the following multi-part result:
Theorem:
- A frame $(W,R)$ validates every theorem of $S4$ iff that frame is reflexive and transitive.
- If $\sigma$ is not a theorem of $S4$, then there is a reflexive and transitive frame not validating $\sigma$
It is in this sense that "$S4\approx$ reflexive + transitive."
In their answer above, HallaSurvivor proved the first bulletpoint (actually they proved more than that - they analyzed the role of reflexivity on its own and transitivity on its own). And this was the point relevant to your question.
The second bulletpoint is a bit more subtle. Basically, it says that $S4$ completely captures the nature of reflexive and transitive frames: there's nothing "missing" from $S4$ in this regard. So we really have a very tight connection between a modal theory ($S4$) and a frame property (reflexive-and-transitive)!
(In more technical language, the first bulletpoint says that $S4$ is sound with respect to the reflexive-and-transitive frame semantics (right-to-left direction) and moreover this is the maximal frame semantics with respect to which $S4$ is sound (left-to-right direction), while the second bulletpoint says that $S4$ is complete with respect to the reflexive-and-transitive frame semantics.)
It's separately worth noting that we can rephrase things in terms of operators:
Frames-to-theories: Given a class of frames $\mathfrak{F}$, let $Th(\mathfrak{F})$ be the set of modal sentences validated by $\mathfrak{F}$.
Theories-to-frames: Given a set of modal sentences $T$, let $Fr(T)$ be the set of frames validating every sentence in $T$.
We always have $Th(Fr(T))\supseteq T$ and $Fr(Th(\mathfrak{F}))\supseteq \mathfrak{F}$. However, in general these may be strict inclusions. The two-part theorem above can be reformulated as:
Let $\overline{S4}$ be the set of theorems of $S4$ and let $\mathfrak{X}$ be the class of reflexive and transitive Kripke frames. Then $$Th(Fr(\overline{S4}))=\overline{S4}\quad\mbox{and}\quad Fr(Th(\mathfrak{X}))=\mathfrak{X}.$$
Think of this as saying that the connection between (the theorems of) $S4$ and the class of reflexive and transitive Kripke frames is as good as we could hope - there's no "loss of information" in replacing one with the other, in a precise sense.
(The term "Galois connection" is relevant here, and it's a good exercise to try and figure out in what sense the pair of operators $(Th,\mathfrak{F})$ forms a Galois connection.)
Welcome to MSE!
It helps to think about what the bonus axioms are saying.
What do these conditions say on frames?
Let's start with $T$. We know that for any valuation we like, we need to guarantee that $\square p \to p$ holds at every world. That is, no matter what the valuation, if $w$ only sees $p$-worlds, then $w$ must be a $p$-world too.
First, it should be clear that reflexive frames have this property. Since $w$ sees itself, if every world $w$ can see is a $p$-world, then $w$ itself must be a $p$ world.
But now say you look at a frame that isn't reflexive. Then fix a world $w$ that doesn't see itself. Now look at the valuation where $w$ thinks $\lnot p$ and every other world thinks $p$. Then since $w$ doesn't see itself, $w$ must think that $\square p$ is true! So $w$ thinks $\square p$ and $\lnot p$, and axiom $T$ fails!
So the frames validating $T$ are exactly the reflexive ones.
Let's move on to $4$. This says that if everywhere I can get in 1 step is a $p$-world, then everywhere I can get in $2$ steps is a $p$-world too.
Again, it should be clear that transitive frames have this property. After all, the definition of transitivity is that anywhere I can get in multiple steps is somewhere I can already get in 1 step.
As a (fun?) exercise, can you show that any nontransitive frame doesnt have this property? You'll want to argue like we did before with reflexivity. Fix a nontransitive frame. Then you can find worlds $x, y, z$ with $xRy$, $yRz$, but $x \not R z$. Can you cook up a valuation which makes axiom $4$ fail on this frame?
I hope this helps ^_^