Why $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{n\left(\sin x\right)^{n}}{2+n^{2}}$ is not uniformly convergent on $[0,\;\frac{\pi}{2})$?
I was thinking that we need to show partial sums \begin{equation} \left|S_{2n}\left(x\right)-S_{n}\left(x\right)\right|\nrightarrow0 \end{equation} for some $x\in[0,\;\frac{\pi}{2})$.
Any hint?
Is this correct?
\begin{align} \left|S_{2n}\left(x\right)-S_{n}\left(x\right)\right| & =\left|\frac{\left(n+1\right)\left(\sin x\right)^{n+1}}{2+\left(n+1\right)^{2}}+\cdots+\frac{2n\left(\sin x\right)^{2n}}{2+\left(2n\right)^{2}}\right|\\ & =\frac{\left(n+1\right)\left(\sin x\right)^{n+1}}{2+\left(n+1\right)^{2}}+\cdots+\frac{2n\left(\sin x\right)^{2n}}{2+\left(2n\right)^{2}}\nonumber \\ & \geq\frac{\left(n+1\right)\left(\sin x\right)^{n+1}}{2+\left(2n\right)^{2}}+\cdots+\frac{2n\left(\sin x\right)^{2n}}{2+\left(2n\right)^{2}}\nonumber \\ & \geq\frac{\left(n+1\right)\left(\sin x\right)^{n+1}}{2+\left(2n\right)^{2}}+\cdots+\frac{\left(n+1\right)\left(\sin x\right)^{2n}}{2+\left(2n\right)^{2}}\nonumber \\ & \geq\frac{\left(n+1\right)\left(\sin x\right)^{2n}}{2+\left(2n\right)^{2}}+\cdots+\frac{\left(n+1\right)\left(\sin x\right)^{2n}}{2+\left(2n\right)^{2}}\nonumber \\ & =\frac{n\left(n+1\right)\left(\sin x\right)^{2n}}{2+\left(2n\right)^{2}}\nonumber \end{align} then let $x=\frac{\pi}{2}-\frac{1}{n}$, so we have \begin{align} \left|S_{2n}\left(x\right)-S_{n}\left(x\right)\right| & \geq\frac{n\left(n+1\right)\left(\sin x\right)^{2n}}{2+\left(2n\right)^{2}}\\ & =\frac{n\left(n+1\right)\left(\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-\frac{1}{n}\right)\right)^{2n}}{2+\left(2n\right)^{2}}\nonumber \\ & \rightarrow0.25,\:not\:0\nonumber \end{align}
First, your proof looks fine to me. Below I sketch a different kind of proof.
Let $f(x)$ be the sum of this series. Note that each summand increases on $[0,\pi/2).$ Hence so does $f(x).$ It follows that $\lim_{x\to \pi/2^-} f(x)=L$ for some $L\in (0,\infty].$
Suppose the series converges uniformly to $f$ on $[0,\pi/2).$ Because each summand is bounded on $[0,\pi/2),$ so is every partial sum, which implies by uniform convergence that $f$ is bounded on $[0,\pi/2).$ Thus $L<\infty.$
Let $N\in \mathbb N.$ Then
$$\tag 1 L = \lim_{x\to \pi/2^-} f(x) \ge \lim_{x\to \pi/2^-}\sum_{n=1}^{N}\frac{n(\sin x)^{n}}{2+n^{2}} = \sum_{n=1}^{N}\frac{n}{2+n^{2}}.$$
Since $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\dfrac{n}{2+n^{2}} = \infty,$ the right side of $(1)$ can be made arbitrarily large. Thus $L=\infty,$ contradiction.