I have the following series, I don't understand why it doesn't converge absolutely.
$$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} (-1)^k(\sqrt{k^2+1}-\sqrt{k^2-1})$$
This is what I did:
$$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} |(-1)^k(\sqrt{k^2+1}-\sqrt{k^2-1})|=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} |(\sqrt{k^2+1}-\sqrt{k^2-1})*\frac{\sqrt{k^2+1}+\sqrt{k^2-1}}{\sqrt{k^2+1}+\sqrt{k^2-1}}|=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{2}{\sqrt{k^2+1}+\sqrt{k^2-1}} \geq \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{\sqrt{k^2+1}} \geq\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2k^2}$$
And $\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2k^2}$ convergences therefore $\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} (-1)^k(\sqrt{k^2+1}-\sqrt{k^2-1})$ is absolutely convergent.
I don't understand why it's not true.
Any ideas? Thank you!
Based on the direction of the inequality comparing with $\sum\frac1{2k^2}$, you cannot conclude that your series converges. It should be the other way around. Also you should compare with $\frac 1{2k}$ because of the square root, which does not converge.