I found the following text -
The functions $\cos (nx), n = 0, 1, 2, \cdots$ and $\sin (nx), n = 1, 2, \cdots $ which are known to be orthogonal with respect to the standard scalar product on $(-\pi, \pi)$.
The source of the problem is -
Question: Plz explain why we author needed to mention "..the functions $\cos (nx), n = 0, 1, 2, \cdots$ and $\sin (nx), n = 1, 2, \cdots $ which are known to be orthogonal with respect to the standard scalar product on $(-\pi, \pi)$".... as we dont need the scalar product of $\cos (nx), \sin (nx)$ in the above example?
Note:
We are doing scalar product of $f$ and $\sin nx$, scalar product of $f$ and $\cos nx$, scalar product of $\sin nx$ and $\sin nx$, scalar product of $\cos nx$ and $\cos nx$, but we never used scalar product of $\cos nx$ and $\sin nx$, then why it was mentioned? what is the meaning of that part of the sentence? Thanks.

Given that
$$f\left(x\right) = a_0 +\sum _{n=1}^\infty \left(a_n\cos nx+b_n\sin nx\right)$$ We get the expression for $b_n$ as follows $$\left\langle f\vert \sin mx \right\rangle = \sum _{n=1}^\infty \left\langle \left(a_n\cos nx+b_n\sin nx\right)\vert \sin mx \right\rangle$$ $$=b_m\left\langle \sin mx\vert \sin mx \right\rangle$$ Using both that $\left\langle \sin mx\vert \sin nx \right\rangle=0$ for $n\neq m$ and that $\left\langle \sin mx\vert \cos nx \right\rangle=0$, i.e. that sin and cos are orthogonal.