Let $(H,\langle,\rangle)$ be a Hilbert space. We have that $u_n$ converges to $u$ weakly if $$\lim_{n\to \infty}\langle u_n,v\rangle=\langle u,v\rangle$$ for all $v\in H$. But why doesn't it converge strongly? Indeed, if $v=u_m$, then, $$\lim_{n\to \infty }\langle u_n,u_m\rangle=\langle u,u_m\rangle$$ for all $m$, and thus $$\lim_{m\to \infty }\lim_{n\to \infty }\langle u_n,u_m\rangle=\langle u,u_m\rangle\lim_{m\to \infty }\langle u,u_m\rangle=\langle u,u\rangle$$ therefore, $$\lim_{n\to \infty }\langle u_n,u_n\rangle=\langle u,u\rangle\implies \lim_{n\to \infty }\|u_n\|=\|u\|$$ and thus it converges weakly. What's wrong here?
Why weak convergence doesn't imply convergence?
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This can be understood geometrically.
To makes things easier, specify the limit point to be zero: $u = 0$. The general case $u \neq 0$ follows from affine translation.
The set $$\{ u : \langle u, v \rangle \le \epsilon \}$$ describes a semi-infinite slab contained between two closely spaced parallel hyperplanes with normal vector $v$. The convergence $$\langle u_n, v \rangle \rightarrow 0$$ occurs successfully if for every slab width, nomatter how thin, a tail of the sequence is contained within the slab. I.e., the sequence is asymptotically "controlled" in the $v$-direction. The sequence converges weakly if this holds for every possible slab direction. I.e.,
for each direction v:
for each width ε:
A tail of the sequence is contained in the slab with
direction v and width ε.
In contrast, the sequence converges strongly if every scaled copy of the unit ball, $$\{ u : ||u|| \le \epsilon \},$$ nomatter how small, contains a tail of the sequence:
for each width ε:
A tail of the sequence is contained within the ball of radius ε.
Strong convergence controls the convergence in all directions simultaneously.
In infinite dimensions a problem occurs since one can create a well-spaced infinite sequence without going anywhere, by cycling through the infinity of different dimensions: \begin{align*} u_1 &= (1,0,0,\dots) \\ u_2 &= (0,1,0,\dots) \\ u_3 &= (0,0,1,\dots) \\ \vdots & \end{align*}
The sequence converges weakly since every direction is controlled eventually, but it does not converge strongly since you have to wait infinitely long for every direction to be controlled.
You have used $$\lim_{m \to \infty} \lim_{n \to \infty} a_{n,m} = a$$ implies $$\lim_{n \to \infty} a_{n,n} = a.$$ However, this is not true.
Consider, e.g., $$a_{n,m} = \begin{cases} \pi & m < n, \\ \mathrm{e} &n < m, \\ 42 & m = n.\end{cases}$$
Edit: It is also enlightening to consider the most famous weakly convergent sequence. Let $\{u_n\}_{n \in \mathbb N}$ be an orthonormal system. Then, your $a_{n,m}$ satisfies $$a_{n,m} = \begin{cases} 0 & m \ne n, \\ 1 &n = m.\end{cases}$$ Again, $$\lim_{m \to \infty} \lim_{n \to \infty} a_{n,m} = \lim_{n \to \infty} a_{n,n}$$ fails blatantly.