A common statement of The Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic goes:
Every integer greater than $1$ can be expressed as a product of powers of distinct prime numbers uniquely up to a reordering of the factors.
Now the statement makes a point of mentioning that factorization is unique up to reordering of the factors, saying basically that we don't have to worry about it because multiplication in the integers is commutative. But why not specify that it's also unique up to the choice in which order we multiply the factors? I.e, that we don't have to worry about it because multiplication in the integers is associative too? If we insist on multiplication being a binary operation, then we need to define some grouping when we have a product of more than two integers. Shouldn't there be a clause in the Fundamental Theorem that indicates, for example, that $30 = (2\times (3 \times 5))$ and $30 = ((2\times 3) \times 5)$ are not distinct factorizations?
It should be noted that some answers to this question were merged from another question, so they may not be completely consistent with this question exactly as it's stated.

"Uniquely" means that there is exactly one way to write an integer as a $k$-ary product of primes (up to permutation of the factors).
Since thanks to associativity, all placements of parentheses give the same product, it does not matter which of the concatenations of binary operations one uses for the definition of the $k$-ary product.
One symmetric way to think about it, is to define it as an equivalence class of all these expressions.
If you insist on Polish notation, then we get, say, $30=*_3 2\ 3\ 5 $ where $*_3$ denotes the ternary multiplication operator.