By long division, $f\left(x\right)=\frac{x^3}{x^2+1}$is equal to $x-\frac{x}{x^2+1}$. Therefore, there is an asymptote $y=x$. But why there is no an asymptote $x=\pm1$? How to determine whether the denominator is an asymptote?
Thank you for your attention
Denominator is a vertical asymptote when it's zero for some real value. $x^2+1=0$ has only complex solutions $x=\pm i$.
If you changed the denominator to $x^2-1$, then there would be a vertical asymptotes at $\pm1$.