Possible proof of Wieferich criterion:
Theorem: Let $p$ be an odd prime and $$ \gcd(x,y,z) = 1$$ $$xyz \not \equiv 0 \pmod p$$ $$x^p = y^p + z^p$$ Then $p$ is Wieferich prime.
Proof:
We use the congruence:
$$\frac{x^n-y^n}{x-y} \equiv nx^{n-1} \pmod{x-y}$$
which we can prove by induction on $n$ and in which we divide first.
Let $n = p$.
Since:
$$ \gcd(x - y,\frac{x^n-y^n}{x-y})$$
$$ = \gcd(x - y,px^{p - 1})$$
$$ = \gcd(x - y,p)$$
$$ = \gcd(x - z,p)$$
$$ = 1$$
it follows that:
$$ x - y = r^p$$
$$ (x^p - y^p)/(x - y) = s^p$$
$$ x - z = t^p$$
$$ (x^p - z^p)/(x - z) = u^p$$
$$ rs = z$$
$$ tu = y$$
for some $r,s,t,u$ with $\gcd(r,s) = \gcd(t,u) = 1$.
The following also holds for $x - z,t,u$:
$$ s \equiv 1 \pmod p \implies s^p \equiv 1 \pmod {p^2}$$
Now let $n=p+1$:
$$\frac{x^{p+1}-y^{p+1}}{x-y} = (p+1)y^p+a(x-y)$$ $$\frac{x^{p+1}-z^{p+1}}{x-z} = (p+1)z^p+b(x-z)$$
$$\implies (p+1)(y^p-z^p) = b(x-z)-a(x-y) = bt^p -ar^p$$
$$\implies p(y^p-z^p) = t^p(b-u^p)-r^p(a-s^p) \equiv t(b-1)-r(a-1) \equiv 0 \pmod{p}$$
Now let $q_p(x)$ denote the Fermat-quotient of $x$ modulo $p$, then
$$q_p(x) \equiv q_p(y) \equiv q_p(z) \equiv 0 \pmod{p}$$
which is provable by other means and so we have:
$$\frac{x^{p+1}-y^{p+1}}{x-y} = (p+1)y^p+a(x-y) \equiv x+y \pmod{p^2}$$ $$\frac{x^{p+1}-z^{p+1}}{x-z} = (p+1)z^p+b(x-z) \equiv x+z \pmod{p^2}$$
$$\implies by \equiv bt \equiv az \equiv ar \equiv x \pmod{p}$$
$$\implies t(b-1)-r(a-1) \equiv r-t \equiv 0 \pmod{p}$$
$$\implies r \equiv t \equiv y \equiv z \pmod{p}$$
$$\implies x \equiv y+z \equiv 2y \pmod{p}$$
$$\implies x^p \equiv y^p+z^p \equiv 2y^p \equiv (2y)^p \pmod{p^2}$$
$$\implies 2^p \equiv 2 \pmod{p^2}$$
Shorter definite proof of the Wieferich-criterion.
Theorem
Let:
$$x^p = y^p+z^p$$ $$p \not | xyz$$ $$gcd(x,y,z)=1$$
Then:
$$2^{p-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{p^2}$$
Proof
Let:
$$az \equiv x-py \pmod{p^3}$$ $$by \equiv x-pz \pmod{p^3}$$ $$a \equiv \frac{x}{z}+rp+sp^2 \pmod{p^3}$$ $$b \equiv \frac{x}{y}+tp+up^2 \pmod{p^3}$$
for some $r,s,t,u$.
Note:
$$az \equiv x+prz+p^2sz \equiv x-py \pmod{p^3}$$ $$by \equiv x+pty+p^2uy \equiv x-pz \pmod{p^3}$$
$\implies$
$$y+rz+psz \equiv 0 \pmod{p^2}$$
$\implies$
$$\frac{y}{z} \equiv -(r+ps) \equiv (a-1)^p \pmod{p^2}$$
$\implies$
$$(a-1)^p \equiv a^{p}-1 \equiv -(r+ps) \equiv -\left(\frac{a-\frac{x}{z}}{p}\right) \pmod{p^2}$$
$\implies$
$$pz(a^p-1) \equiv x-az \pmod{p^2}$$
$\implies$
$$az(pa^{p-1}+1) \equiv az(1+p) \equiv x+pz \pmod{p^2}$$
By symmetry:
$$az(1+p) \equiv x+pz \pmod{p^2}$$ $$by(1+p) \equiv x+py \pmod{p^2}$$
$\implies$
$$(1+p)(by-az) \equiv p(y-z) \equiv by-az \pmod{p^2}$$
$\implies$
$$by-az \equiv p(y-z) \equiv 0 \pmod{p^2}$$
$\implies$
$$y \equiv z \pmod{p}$$
$\implies$
$$y^p \equiv z^p \pmod{p^2}$$
$\implies$
$$x^p \equiv y^p+z^p \equiv 2y^p \pmod{p^2}$$
$\implies$
$$2^{p-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{p^2}$$