I suppose my question could be restated as "why?" to the above statement. I'll rephrase my question if this breaks any rules asking it this way, but the expression is simply:
$$\sum_{m=2}^\infty \frac{1}{m^{2n}(m^2-1)} = ??$$
with the partial sum being: $$\sum_{m=2}^a \frac{1}{m^{2n}(m^2-1)} = ??$$
$m, n \in \mathbb N$
Are the above two somehow more insidious than they look?
Yes, your series is innocuous if $n$ is a non-negative integer: by partial fraction decomposition $$\frac{1}{m^{2n}(m^2-1)}=-\sum_{k=1}^n\frac{1}{m^{2k}}+\frac{1/2}{m-1}-\frac{1/2}{m+1}.$$ Hence $$\sum_{m=2}^{\infty} \frac{1}{m^{2n}(m^2-1)} = -\sum_{k=1}^n\zeta(2k)+n+\frac{3}{4}$$ where $\zeta(2k)=\frac{|B_{2k}|(2\pi)^{2k}}{2(2k)!}$ (see wiki).
However, I guess that wolframalpha considers $n$ as a complex argument (not as a non negative integer). On the other hand, given an explicit non negative integer $n$, wolframalpha will give you the result.