Write down an expression (involving inner products) for the values of the constants in the general solution.

119 Views Asked by At

In the process of finding the general solution to a partial differential equation using separation of variables, I derived the Fourier sine series $\sum_{n = 1}^\infty b_n \sin(n\pi x) = e^{2x}$.

The problem is as follows:

Write down an expression (involving inner products) for the values of the constants in the general solution.

The solution provided is as follows:

The initial condition is $u(x, 0) = 1$ for $0 < x < 1$.

$\therefore \sum_{n = 1}^\infty b_n e^{-2x} \sin(n\pi x) = 1$

$\implies \sum_{n = 1}^\infty b_n \sin(n\pi x) = e^{2x}$

The functions $\sin(n\pi x)$, $n = 1, 2, 3, ...$ are orthogonal on $[0, 1]$ with inner product $\langle\ f(x), g(x)\rangle = \int_0^1 f(x)g(x) \ dx$, and hence

$b_n \dfrac{\langle e^{2x}, \sin(n\pi x) \rangle}{\langle \sin(n\pi x), \sin(n\pi x) \rangle}$.

I don't understand how it was found that the functions $\sin(n\pi x)$, $n = 1, 2, 3, ...$ are orthogonal on $[0, 1]$?

I also don't understand how we get $b_n \dfrac{\langle e^{2x}, \sin(n\pi x) \rangle}{\langle \sin(n\pi x), \sin(n\pi x) \rangle}$? It seems almost like an orthonormalisation?

I would greatly appreciate it if people could please take the time to clarify this.

1

There are 1 best solutions below

2
On BEST ANSWER

You can convince yourself that they are indeed orthogonal by checking the integral : $$\int_0^1 \sin(n \pi x) \sin(m \pi x) = \frac{1}{2}\delta_{m-n} $$

For your second question, it is exactly an orthonormalization. The inner product is equivalent to a dot product of ordinary vectors. The vector basis are given by $e_n = \sin(n\pi x)$, which is simply an infinite basis. You are simply doing projections into this vector basis. Consider the following : $$ \exp(2x) = \sum_n b_n \sin(n\pi x)$$. Now integrate both sides with another sine function and permute sum/integral, which is how you usually derive $b_n$: $$ \int_0^1 \exp(2x) \sin(m \pi x) = \sum_n b_n \int_0^1 \sin(m\pi x) \sin(n\pi x)$$. Using the fact that the right integral is zero if $n\neq m$, you get: $$ \int_0^1 \sin(m \pi x )\exp(2x) = b_m \int_0^1 \sin(m\pi x)^2$$. This is exactly a vector base change. The sines function form a vector space, with the inner product defined by an integral. The vector space is also complete in the sense that any function in [0,1] can be exactly represneted by a sum of sines.