I know that I have to calculate $a_n$ first. $a_n=\frac{1}{n!} f^{(n)}(z_0)$
so I arrived at this formula for $f^{(n)}(z)=(-1)^n.\frac{n!}{z^{n+1}}$
then we have $a_n=\frac{(-1)^n}{i^{n+1}}$
so from Taylor series we have $$f(z)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n (z-z_0)^n $$
so for f(z)=1/z we have $$f(z)=\frac{(-1)^n}{i^{n+1}} .(z-i)^n$$ but I can't confidentially say that this approach is true.If you see any problems with my solution please tell me.
You can either say.
$\frac {f^{(n)}(z)}{n!} = (-1)^n z^{-n-1}$
evaluated at $z=i$
$a_n = (-1)^n (i)^{-n-1}\\ -1 = i^2\\ a_n = (i)^{n-1}\\ f(z) = \sum_\limits{0}^{\infty} i^{n-1} {(z-i)^n}$
Alternatively, you could use the formula for a geometric series.
$\sum_\limits{n=0}^\infty z^n = \frac {1}{1-z}$ and manipulate your function to fit this form.
$f(z) = \frac {1}{z} = \frac {1}{i+(z-i)} = \frac {i}{-1+(z+i)i}= -i\sum i^n(z-i)^n = \sum i^{n-1}(z-i)^n$