I am stuck at showing how if:
$P \rightarrow Q$ then this implies ($Q \rightarrow R) \rightarrow (P \rightarrow R)$
I know that if we assume $P$ is true then $Q$ also must be true. Therefore if $Q$ is true then $R$ must be true. And because $Q$ is true because $P$ is true so therefore $R$ must also be true.
However it would be appreciated if someone could help me understand this why is the case and what proof technique it is.
This property is called transitivity of implication.
You pretty much gave a proof in your question, but here's a proof written out in slightly more precise terms.
Suppose $P \Rightarrow Q$ is true. To prove $(Q \Rightarrow R) \Rightarrow (P \Rightarrow R)$, you need to assume $Q \Rightarrow R$ and derive $P \Rightarrow R$. So assume that $Q \Rightarrow R$ is true. To prove $P \Rightarrow R$ is true, you need to assume $P$ is true and derive $R$. So assume $P$ is true. All we have to do now is prove that $R$ is true.
At this point, we're assuming that $P \Rightarrow Q$, $Q \Rightarrow R$ and $P$ are all true. So:
So we're done.