Writing this as a formal proof.

Question

The question from Velleman's How to Prove It section 3.1 is as follows:

Suppose $ A \setminus B \subseteq C \cap D $ and $ x \in A. $ Prove that if $ x \notin D$ then $x \in B$

My logical form of the statement is:

$x \in A \land x \in B \rightarrow x \in C \land x \in D$ and $ x \subseteq A$

I am unsure of how to properly express this as a proof. There is this one.

But that thread doesn't show a written out proof.

Also, are you allowed to do the contrapositive of a given? Because if I am, then I could apply demorgan's law to it, which would show that $x \notin D \lor x \notin C \rightarrow x \notin A \lor x \notin B$. Obviously from here, we assume that $ x \notin D$, and from the contrapositive we see that x doesn't belong in B.

For my thinking above, how would I turn this into a proof if correct?

Answer 1

Here is one way:

Note that $A \setminus B \subset D$.

$A = (A \cap B) \cup ( A \setminus B)$, this is a disjoint union.

We have $A \subset (A \cap B) \cup D$.

Hence if $x \in A$, we must have $x \in A \cap B$ or $x \in D$.

Since $x \notin D$, we must have $x \in A \cap B \subset B$.

Answer 2

How about trying this by contradiction?

Suppose $ A \setminus B \subseteq C \cap D $ and $ x \in A $.
Suppose further that $ x \notin D $ and $ x \notin B $.
Since $ x \in A $ and $ x \notin B $,   $x \in A \setminus B $.
Since $ A \setminus B \subseteq C \cup D $,   $ x \in C \cup D $ ... i.e. $ x \in C $ and $ x \in D $.
Since we assumed that $ x \notin D$, this is a contradiction.
Thus, if $ x \notin D $ then $ x \in B$.