Question is to prove that
$X$ is complete if and only if $S(X)=\{x: \|x\|=1\}$ is complete.
The condition $S(X)=\{x :\|x\|=1\}$ being complete seems to be very weak to conclude that X is complete.
I was trying to solve this but could not succeed.
Let $(x_n)$ be a Cauchy sequence in $X$, we want to find a Cauchy sequence in $S(X)$.
Obvious corresponding sequence in $S(X)$ is $y_n=\dfrac{x_n}{\|x_n\|}$.
We then see if this $(y_n)$ is Cauchy and then quote the condition that $S(X)$ is complete to conclude that $(y_n)$ converges and thus $(x_n)$ converges.
But then, it seems to be not natural why should $(y_n)$ is Cauchy if $(x_n)$ is Cauchy. $$\|y_n-y_m\|=\left|\left|\dfrac{x_n}{\|x_n\|}-\dfrac{x_m}{\|x_m\|}\right|\right|=\frac{1}{\|x_n\| \|x_m\|}\left|\left|x_m||x_n||-x_n||x_m||\right|\right|$$
As $(x_n)$ is Cauchy, we see that it is bounded and so we have $M>0$ such that $\|x_n\|\leq M$ for all $n$.
This says $\|y_n-y_m\|\leq \frac{M}{\|x_n\| \|x_m\|}\|x_n-x_m\|$ which does not say anything about $(y_n)$ being Cauchy.
Assuming something more, as $S'(X)=\{x: \|x\|\leq 1\}$ is complete we can then consider the sequence $(y_n)$ with $y_n=x_n/M$ we then have $||y_n||\leq 1$ and $\|y_n-y_m\|\leq 1/M \|x_n-x_m\|$ which says that $(y_n)$ is Cauchy and for the same reason as above we can say $x_n$ is Cauchy.
Consider the case when $X= \mathbb{Q}$ the collection of rational numbers, then $S(X)=\{-1,1\}$ which is complete but $\mathbb{Q}$ is not complete.
So, I guess we need to have the condition the unit disk is complete.
Clearly $\Bbb Q$ is not a $\Bbb R$-normed space, it is a $\Bbb Q$-normed space. So, $\Bbb Q$ is not a complete as $\Bbb Q$-normed space.
After all it turns out that question is correct.
Please give only hints.