This is from Spivak Calculus on manifolds page 14. I cannot use the fact that the cartesian product of two compact sets which are subsets of Euclidean space is compact because he uses what is written in the title to prove that fact.
It seems that I am only allowed to use the definition of compactness here, which is that a set is compact if every open cover of it has a finite subvoer. (The book only deals with Euclidean space here, and Spivak defines an open set $U$ to be such that for every element $x \in U$, there is an open rectangle $A$ such that $x \in A \subset U$.)
As he says in the book, this must be very easy to see, but I just cannot figure out.
Thanks in advance.
Well, I think this comes directly from the definition. For any set of cover $\{U_k\}_{k\in\mathcal{K}}$, then we can project it to the later $\mathbb{R}^m$ sub-space, set: $$ V_k:=\mathbb{P}(U_k),\quad\mathtt{where}\quad\mathbb{P}:\mathbb{R}^{n+m}\mapsto \mathbb{R}^m $$ which maintains a set of open set in $\mathbb{R}^m$ and it forms a cover of B.
Due to B is compact, there exists a finite sub-cover $V_{k_i}$. Then by the axiom of Choice, pick up the corresponding $U_{k_i}$ and it forms a finite sub-cover of $\{x\}\times B$.
I think this should work. :)