I felt weird when I tried to prove the statement of title.
$X$ with a line(intersecting on one point) may be homotopic equivalent to $X$
If $X$ is Hausdorff, it's possible to prove. I have a positive result of this.
However, for arbitrary topological space, how to prove it? Is there any counterexample of the statement?
The line with two origins does not deformation retract on two origins. Now take $X=\{a,b\}$ with indiscrete topology and add it a line. Then it is isomorphic to the line with two origins where two origins are $a$ and $b$.