Of the following, why is a usually considered true, and for what reason other than "tradition" and "more convenient"?
a: ${x}^{y^z} = x^{(y^z)} \neq {(x^y)}^z$
b: ${x}^{y^z} = {(x^y)}^z \neq x^{(y^z)}$
Edit: I know a is correct, but what is the reason for this order of operations?
Choice (b) is pointless since you could instead write $x^{yz}$.
To elaborate, sometimes we mean (a) and sometimes we mean (b). We already have a way to denote (b), but no other way to denote (a).